To be wealthy does not injure others and is not criminal

What crime has been committed by the rich? It may be that they have used violence and aggression in the past to establish their elevated position. Or it might be that they are using fraudulent, or violent practices in the present to maintain their position. Or they could have gained their wealth from a monopolisation of resources, whether artificially made (such as machinery) or naturally occurring. In any of these circumstances there might be reasonable grounds to argue that compensation is owed. If not, since they have committed no crime, no repayment is due and they are not guilty of any misdemeanour.

It is not a crime to be rich per se, only if we are being aggressive or if our wealth has been derived from criminal activity, otherwise we must assume that the wealth has been gained through voluntary interactions. We might, as a wealthy person, be hoarding resources, in which case, it might be argued that compensation is due, otherwise we assume innocence.