Sunday, 14 February 2010

Democracy does not legitimise a violation of property rights

Freedom is the only right. We have no other right since, by definition, all other 'rights' violate the rights (and freedoms) of others. For example, we have no right to a good education, although the right to have responsibility for a child is not inviolable, even if we are the natural parent...

We have no right to a free health care, or free museums, or art galleries, or free roads. All of these things are paid for through force, which violates the rights of other people, other individuals. We have only the right to be free.

If we do something that others do not want (us) to do, and we have not accused them of a crime (we are not arresting a criminal) then what justification can there be, for the action? Has it been shown that our need... or that of the group, is greater? Does a majority vote establish this? If people vote for a rape, or a murder, does that change the intrinsic morality; surely not.

Just because it might be popular, does not justify a violation of property rights.

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